January 21, 2021

MP Police Constable previous year question paper solution 2017

GK AND SCIENCE QUESTIONS FROM MP POLICE CONSTABLE PAPER


19" aug 2017 09:00AM


Topic:- General Knowledge 


1) A person eligible to become the president of India should not be less than 


1. 40 Years of age 

2. 35 Years of age 

3. 60 Years of age 

4.50 Years of age 


Correct Answer :-  35 Years of age


2) When is the Human Rights Day celebrated? 


1. September 1 

2. November 10 

3. December 10 

4. July 15 


Correct Answer :-  December 10 


3) Vidisha is situated on the banks of river 


1. Ravi

2. Sone 

3. Ken

4. Betwa 


Correct Answer :-  Betwa


4) According to history, who established Gwalior?


1. Rana Singh 

2. Samrat Ashok 

3. King Vikramaditya 

4. Suraj Sen 


Correct Answer :-  Suraj Sen 


5) If DEMAND is coded DNAMED and SUPPLY is coded YLPPUS, then how is QUANTITY coded? 


1. YIITNAUQ

2. YTITANQU

3. YTUTANIQ

4. YTATUYIQ


Correct Answer :  YTITNAUQ


6) The Author of the Biography of PM Shri Narendra Modi ‘Modi - Incredible Emergence of a Star’ is 


1. Rajdeep Sardesai 

2. Tarun Vijay 

3. Rajiv Shrivastav 

4. Rajat Sharma 


Correct Answer :-  Tarun Vijay 


7) The headquarters of the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is located at 


1. Chennai 

2. Bengaluru 

3. Dewas 

4. Koraput 


Correct Answer :-  Bengaluru 


8) The total number of Union Territories in India is_—. 


1.11

2.10

3.12

4. 7


Correct Answer :- 7


9) The Reserve Bank of India was established in


1. 1949

2. 1947

3. 1927

4. 1935


Correct Answer :-  1935


10) Who is the Principal Economic Advisor in the Union Finance Ministry? 


1. Arvind Subramanian 

2. Sanjeev Sanyal 

3. Subramaniam Swamy 

4. Raghuram Rajan 


Correct Answer :-  Sanjeev Sanyal


11) Who has been named as the winner of the 2014 Sahitya Academi Award for Sanskrit 


1. Ramji Thakur 

2. Mithila Prasad Tripathi 

3. Prabhu Nath Dwivedi 

4, Ram Shankar Awasthi 


Correct Answer :-  Prabhu Nath Dwivedi 


12) Who constructed the Chaturbhuj Temple of Orchha?


1. Satpura Kings 

2, Bundela Rajputs 

3. King Vikramaditya 

4. Raja Bhoj 


Correct Answer :-  Bundela Rajputs 


13) Highest peak in the Vindhya Range is the 


1. Bell Peak 

2. Mikai Range 

3. Cascade Range 

4. Goodwill Peak 


Correct Answer :-  Goodwill Peak 


14) Who is the chief of the Indian Army?


1. Gen Bikram Singh 

2. Gen Dalbir Singh 

3. Gen Bipin Rawat 

4. Gen Deepak Kapoor 


Correct Answer :-  Gen Bipin Rawat 


15) How many villages from Madhya Pradesh have been included in the Climate Smart Village Project of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change?


1.50

2. 90

3. 80

4. 60


Correct Answer :-


16) India's nuclear-capable missile, Agni V was test fired in 2016 from 


1. Munroe Island 

2. Srirangam Island 

3. Abdul Kalam Island 

4. Havelock Island 


Correct Answer :-  Abdul Kalam Island 


17) Which of the following words are inscribed on the national emblem? 


1. Satyameva Jayate

2. Vande Mataram 

3. Jana — gana — mana 

4. Bharat Mata Ki Jai 


Correct Answer :-  Satyameva Jayate 


18) Who was the Chairman of the Partition Council? 


1. Lord Mountbatten 

2. Jawaharlal Nehru 

3. M.A. Jinnah 

4, VP_Menon 


Correct Answer :-  Lord Mountbatten 





19) ‘Good Governance Day’ is observed on the birthday of Indian’s former prime minister


1. Lal Bahadur Shastri 

2, Indira Gandhi 

3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

4. Rajiv Gandhi 


Correct Answer :-  Atal Bihari Vajpayee 


20) The Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian State of 


1. Jammu & Kashmir 

2. Sikkim 

3. Arunachal Pradesh 

4, Odisha 


Correct Answer :-  Arunachal Pradesh 


21) The national park which was declared as a tiger reserve in 1983 is _ National


1. Panpatha 

2. Sanjay Dubri 

3. Pench 

4. Kanha 


Correct Answer :-  Pench




Topic:- Science 


1) Which method of purification of water does NOT kill germs? 


1. Boiling

2. Filtration 

3. Distillation 

4. Chlorination 


Correct Answer :-  Filtration 


2) The most comfortable distance at which one can read with a normal eye is: 


1. 25cm 

2. 20 cm

3. 15cm

4. 10 cm 


Correct Answer :-  25cm


3) In anaerobic respiration if yeast is added to fruit juices, the sugar gets converted to which chemical



1. Citric acid 

2. Formic acid 

3. Lactic acid

4. Alcohol 


Correct Answer :-  Alcohol 


4) The important property of magnet which was exploited by navigators and travelers from the ancient


1. Repulsive property 

2. Induction property

3. Directional property 

4. Attractive property 


Correct Answer :-  Directional property


5) During Diwali, crackers are burst outside the building. We hear the sound a bit later after we see it bursting. This is because: 


1. Sound wave has same intensity but different frequency 

2. Light travels faster than sound

3. Our ears take longer time to hear the sound 

4. Sound travels faster than light 


Correct Answer :-  Light travels faster than sound 


6) Identify the one that is not a part of live stock. 


1. Duck 

2. Peacock 

3. Cattle 

4. Fowl 


Correct Answer :-  Peacock


7) Name the tissue which is not found in animal. 


1. Adipose tissue 

2. Meristematic tissue 

3. Dendrite 

4, Connective tissue 


Correct Answer :-  Meristematic tissue 


8) Choose the correct units of time in ascending order. 


1. Second, day, year, month, minutes, hour 

2. Second, hour, year, month, minutes, day 

3. Second, minutes, hour, day, month, year 

4. Second, day, month, year, minutes, hour 


Correct Answer :-  Second, minutes, hour, day, month, year 


9) Cholera is caused by: 


1. Fungi 

2. Protozoa 

3. Viruses 

4. Bacteria 


Correct Answer :-  Bacteria


10) When sodium reacts with chlorine, sodium chloride is formed; the heat is in the reaction. 


1. not exchanged 

2. decomposed 

3. evolved 

4. absorbed 


Correct Answer :-  evolved 


11) What is the feed of broiler chickens?


1. Protein rich with adequate quantity of fat and sufficient carbohydrates with vitamin rich supplement 

2. High quantity of mixed food grains

3. Usually protein and fat laden components 

4. Vitamin rich supplementary food 


Correct Answer :-  Protein rich with adequate quantity of fat and sufficient carbohydrates with vitamin rich supplement


12) Write the name of reptile with four chambered heart. 


1. Varanus 

2. Lizard 

3. Chameleon 

4. Crocodile 


Correct Answer :-  Crocodile 


13) Heart, arteries and veins work together. It is an example of which level of organisation? 


1. Tissue 

2. Organ system 

3. Cell 

4, Organ 


Correct Answer :- Organ system 


14) AIDS cannot be transmitted by .


1. sexual contact 

2. hugs 

3. breast feeding 

4. blood transfusion 


Correct Answer :- hugs 


15) The microorganism that acts as the fermenting agent in the conversion of sugar into alcohol is: 


1. Lactobacillus 

2. Rhizobium 

3. Yeast 

4. Penicillium 


Correct Answer :-  Yeast 

January 20, 2021

daily gk and current affair questions 20th january

Who became man of the matchin indo-austrailia test match held in gaba stadium - Rishabh pant

Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently announced the launch of a Rs.1000 crore startup what is the name of this fund - India seed fund

The fund is started to support - startups and emerging entrepreneurs

What is a start up? -  According to the government's definition, a startup is an entity that has been registered in India for not more than five years and whose annual turnover does not exceed Rs 25 crore in any financial year.

Start Up India program was started on - January 2016.

The aims of Startup India program is - to create more employment in the economy by encouraging start ups in the country. Under the scheme, startups are exempted from tax in the first three year. 

Vice President of india is - Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu 

What is a whistle-blower? - A whistle-blower is a person who is exposed to corruption and other unethical practices in an organization. It can be an internal or external person. 

Whistle-Blower Protection Bill in the year 2011 was introduced by - The central government headed by Manmohan Singh 

Whistle-blowers are subjected to "Official Secrets Act"

What happens if a wrong complaint is done under whistle-blower act? - two years jail on wrong complaint made by malicious and a provision for a fine of 30000 rupees has been made.

Which african country is facing starvation fue to civil war? - Ethopia

Who is the Prime Minister of Ethopia - Abi Ahmed. 

Tigrayan ethnic group is the major tribe of  in -  Tigray province of Ethiopia 

Who received the Nobel Prize for peace of 2019-  Prime minister of Ethopia Abi Ahmed

About Ethiopia - It is a landlocked country located in the Horn of Africa. in the Horn of Africa; Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia and Somalia are also included. 
It is the second most populous country in Africa and inhabits more than 85.2 lakh people. Its capital is Addis Ababa.
It is a "federal parliamentary republic".
Abi Ahmad Ali is its current Prime Minister, who has long struggles with the neighboring country Eritrea. The Nobel Prize for Peace for the year 2019 was also awarded.


G-7 -  It is the group of 7 largest perceived developed and advanced economies of the world, in which
Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Britain and the United States.

Who is the current president of G-7 - USA

The first meeting of G-7 took place in - France in 1975.

Canada was included in G-7 in the year 1976 and Russia in 1998.

Why Russia was removed from G-7 group in 2014 -Because Russia attacked Crimea

Countries in this group account for 46% of the world's GDP and the highest in the UN budget.

Who is appointed as the New President of United Nations Human Rights Council  - Fizi Ambassador Nazat Shamim Khan 


UNHRC - The United Nations Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body of the United Nations. It is headquartered in Geneva.

The aim of UNHRC is - to promote and protect human rights in the world. 

January 18, 2021

daily gk and current affair questions 18th january

 daily gk and current affair questions 18th january


which city of madhya pradesh ranked first in swanidhi yojana - Indore

which is the first green station in India -  Kevadiya station, Gujarat

The highest statue in the world is -  Statue of  Unity

The railway minister of India - Piyush Goyal

Chief minister of Gujarat is -  Vijay Rupani

Gaba cricket stadium is in -  Brisbane, Australia 

Who has become the richest person on the earth - Elon Musk

UDAAN yojana was started in - 2017

Indian government has confirmed to take 73 LCA Tejas  MK-1A fighter jets and 10 LCAMK-1 trainer jets from-  Hindustan Aeronotics Limited (HAL)

the headquarter of HAL is in -  Begaluru

The share of government in HAL is - 90%

hindustan aeronotics limited was established in -  23 december 1940

who was the first president of  HAL - Balchand Hirachand

the nationalisation of HAL was done on -  1 october 1964

startup india abhiyan was started in - january 2016

Pegong is a salt water lake in -  Laddakh

The length of Pegong lake is -  135km

Choshool valley is between -  India and china

New Foreign trade policy will be implemented from- 1st april 2021

The aim of  New Foreign trade policy is- to make india 5 dollar economy

how many companies of india are icluded in Hurun 500 list - 11 companies

the rank of reliance industries in Hurun 500 list is - 54

Which company ranked first 1st in HURUN 500 list this year - Apple

The  valuation of apple is - 2.1 trillion dollar

Siruvani hill are located at - Koyambatur district of  Tamil Nadu

Which hills are recently declared as butterfly  hotspot - Siruvani Hills

How many  species of butterfly are found in tamil nadu - 325 and 240 in only siruvani hills

full form of TNBS is - NATURE AND BUTTERFLY SOCIETY

full form of ATL is - ATAL TINKERING LABS

who adopted 100 atal tinkering labs to provide mentoring and coaching facilities to students - ISRO

pradhan mantri fasal beema yojana (PMFBY) was started in  - 13 january 2021

Space Launch System was tested by - NASA

the lenght of SLS is - 98 meter

Starship rocket 7 was prepared by -  SPACE-X

Artemis program was started by -  NASA

The rank of India in Henley Passport Index is - 85th

which country ranked first in henley passport index - Japan

Who is the central transport and national highway and msme minister -  Nitin Gadkari

Operation Raksham was started by - Indian Navy

the headquarter of indian meteorological department is in -  new delhi

IMD was established in - 1875

national army day is celebrated on - 15th january

which institute gor permission by UGC  to open campus in foreign countries -  Institute of Immenese (IOEs)

First world hindi summit was held in -  Nagpur 10th january 1975

world hindi day is celebrated on -  10th january



January 16, 2021

Organizations and their headquarters for various competitive exams

IMPORTANT INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS AND THEIR HEADQUARTERS FOR VARIOUS COMPETITIVE EXAMS


African Economic Commission (ECA) - Addis Ababa
Amnesty International - London (UK) 
Arab League - Cairo (Egypt ) 
Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Forum (APEC) Singapore
Asian Development Bank (ADB) - Manila
Association Football International Federation (FIFA) Zurich, Switzerland
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) - Jakarta, Indonesia
Chemical Weapons Prohibition Organization The Hague, Netherlands
Commonwealth - London
Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) - Stransburg
Commonwealth of Nations - London, United Kingdom
Doctors Without Borders Geneva, Switzerland
Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific - Bangkok
Europe
European Atomic Energy Community (EURATON) - Brussels
European Bank for Reconstruction and Development - London, United Kingdom
European Common Market (ECM) -Geneva
European Economic Community (EEC) - Geneva
European Free Trade Association (ECTA) - Geneva
European Parliament - Luxembourg
European Space Research Organization (ESRO) - Paris
Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) (Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)) - Rome, Italy
G-15 1989 Geneva 17 (all are developing countries)
GATT - Geneva
Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation - Ebene, Mauritius
International Amnesty International - London, United Kingdom
(International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF)) - Monaco
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) - Vienna( Austria) 
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) - Montel, Canada (Montreal, Canada)
International Committee of the Red Cross - Geneva, Switzerland
International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICMOMS) (Paris), France
International Court of Justice - The Hague
International Cricket Council (ICC) (International Cricket Council (ICC)) - Dubai, UAE
International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol) - Lyon, France
International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) - Rome, Italy
International Hockey Federation (FIH) - Lausanne, Switzerland
International Hydrographic Organization - Monaco
International Labor Organization (ILO) - Geneva, Switzerland
International Maritime Organization - London, United Kingdom
International Monetary Fund (IMF) -  Washington d. C.
International Nature Conservation Union (IUCN) Gland, Switzerland
International Olympic Committee Lausanne, Switzerland
International Red Cross Committee - Geneva
International Renewable Energy Agency - Abu Dhabi (United Arab Emirates)
International Shooting Sports Federation - Munich, Germany
International Standards Organization (ISO) / International Organization for Standardization) - Geneva, Switzerland
International Standards Organization Geneva
International Telecommunication Union - Geneva, Switzerland
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) - Gland, Switzerland
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemicals Zurich, Switzerland
Internet Corporation of Assigned Names and Numbers (ICAAAN) Los Angeles, UNO
INTERPOL - Paris (Lyons)
Kathmandu, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders - Geneva, Switzerland
NATO -  Brussels
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) - Brussels
Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Paris
Organization of African Unity (OAU) - Addis Ababa
Organization of American States (OAS) - Washington d. C.
Organization of Islamic Cooperation - Jeddah, Saudi Arabia
Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Vienna
Red Cross - Geneva
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) - Kathmandu, Nepal
Southeast Asian Nations Organization (ASEAN) Jakarta
Transparency International - Berlin, Germany
UN Women - New York
United Nations - New York
United Nations Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF) (New York) - New York
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) - Geneva, Switzerland
United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) - Paris, France
United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) - Nairobi ( Kenya) 
United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) – Rome
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) - Geneva
United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) - Vienna
United Nations Organization (UNO)  - New York
United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) - New York
United Nations Security Council (United Nations Security Council) (United Nations Security Council (UNSC)) - Albio Roselli, Uruguay
Universal Postal Union (UPC) - Bern, Switzerland
UNO / UN  - New York City, 
Western Asia Economic Commission (ECWA) - Baghdad
World Bank - Washington D.C.
World Chess Federation - Athens, Greece
World Council of Churches (WCC) - Geneva
World Economic Forum Geneva, Switzerland
World Health Organization (WHO) - Geneva, Switzerland
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) - Geneva, Switzerland
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) - Geneva, Switzerland
World Meteorological Organization  - Geneva
World Tourism Organization - Spain
World Trade Organization - Geneva
World Trade Organization (WTO) - Geneva, Switzerland
World Trade Organization 1995 Geneva 164
World Wildlife Fund (WWF)  - Gland (Switzerland)
Worldwide Fund for Nature (WNF) - Gland, Switzerland




x

Important questions for mppsc pre examinations series - 1

IMPORTANT GK QUESTIONS FOR MPPSC PRELIMS EXAMS


1.Khusro was the son of which Mughal emperor - Jahangir

2.Who was the Gandhi Peace Prize 2013 winner - an environmentalist

3. Which is the biggest day of the year -  20 June

4. Penicillin was discovered by - Alexander Fleming 

5. The intensity of earthquake is measured by - seismograph

6. Milk density is measured by - Lactometer

7. Which blood group person can be a universal provider - O

8. Microscope is used to study - nearby objects

9. Regional Research Branch of Indian Forest Research Institute is in which district of Madhya Pradesh

situated at -  Jabalpur district.

10, 'Fathometer' is used to measure - Depth of the sea

11, who was the first woman to climb Mount Everest - Junko Taibi 

12. Who has received Arjuna Award from Madhya Pradesh in the field of Naukayan - GL Yadav

13  whois the author of 'scattered beads' - Subhadra Kumari Chauhan

14. Dhupgarh peak is located - In Satpura Range

15. In MP Where is the currency printing press of India - Dewas

16. ​​Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi Award is related to which field - Journalism

17. where is "MP Veterinary and Animal Husbandry University" located in MP - Jabalpur

18.Sant Singaji was resident of which region of Madhya Pradesh - Neemar

19 “Who was Vishnu Chinchalkar - The painter

20. Which is the fellowship given by the Madhya Pradesh government in the field of music - Alauddin Khan

24.s the first state to obey the 73rd Constitutional amendment - Madhya Pradesh

22. Bhil tribe is found most in - In Madhya Pradesh

23. Under whose leadership did the tribals agitate in Sandhwa - Bhima Nayak movement in Sedhwa.

24. Rani Durgavati, Ruled in which area of madhya pradesh - Gondwana

25. Which country started the written constitution - America

26. What was the objective of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 - Better protection of human rights

27. On which date Human Rights Protection Act, 1993 came into force - 28 September, 1993

28. In which city is Ashbagh Stadium located -  Bhopal

29. Narendra Hirwani took 6 wickets in a Test match against whom - West Indies

30. How many players are there in a polo team - 4 players.

34. National Sports Day is celebrated on which of the following days -29 August. 

32.Sandhya Agarwal is related to which of the following sports - cricket.

33. Where is the headquarters of Madhya Pradesh Cricket Association located -  Indore

34. Who was the winner of men's singles in the Wimbledon Championships of 2015 - Novak Djokovic

35. 2016 Summer Olympics were held in -  Rio de Janeiro (Brazil).

36. The first page you usually see on a website is - Home page

37. Where such accessories connect in computer - usb port

38. Which of the following does not do the computer - undestanding

39. Which of the following is a computer language - c

40. Who is called the father of Indian supercomputer - Vijay Bhatkar

44.Which of the following is the biggest, fastest and most expensive computer - super computer

42. How many digits are made of binary language- 2 (0 and 1)

43.Select the minimum memory size unit - bit

44. How many bits in a byte - 8

45,. Who invented that there is life in plants - Jc Bose

46. ​​Which of the following is not a primary color -  black

47. The basis of continuous development is

54 In which sea is the most 'salinity' found? - The highest salinity is 34.2 percent in the Dead Sea.

52, which part is not a tsunami affected area? -  Coastal Zone of Gujarat

53. Which of the following is not social pollution? -  Agricultural pollution

54. Who is not an indicator of climate change? -  Long-term change

56. Who is the Chairman of Central Pollution Control Board? -  Arun Kumar Mehta

57. Who proposed the merger of Finance Commission and Planning Commission? -  M. V. Mathur

58. For what purpose was the Tarkunde Committee formed? -  Election reform

59. Which country has the world's first written constitution? -  America

60. "NABARD" is related? -  National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

62. Payment of foreign trade is related -  the balance of payments.

63, who has been called the guardian of the Constitution of India? - Supreme Court

64. What is the meaning of continuous economic development? -  Sustainable development

64. Which Constitutional Amendment Act is related to which constitution amendment bill? - 52nd Constitution Amendment Bill.

65. Who has called the Constitution a sacred document? - B. R. Ambedkar 

66. In which year the first general elections were held under the Indian Constitution - 1952 

67. The Second Five Year Plan was based on which model? -  Mahalanobis model.

68. The urinary purpose of the Fifth Five-Year Plan was? -  Remove poverty

69. What is the basis of Human Development Index? -  Health, education, standard of living

70. Talchir is the famous coal region of - Odisha

74, is the most productive state of asbestos in India? -  Andhra Pradesh

72. Belladilla is famous for the production of -  iron ore production

73. Which state of India borders Nepal, Bhutan and China with three countries? - Sikkim 

74. In which of the following states is Sabarimala located? -  Kerala

75. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet? - Devprayag.

76. The line connecting the area with uniform rainfall is called? -  isohyte.

77.Which of the following is called 'Coffee Port' of the world? -  Santos

78. What is Gajati Chalisa, Prachanda Pachasa and Screaming Satha? - Western winds in southern hemishphere

79, pollution is the most harmful ozone layer? - chloroflocarbon which is air

80. What is 'alfalfa'? -  A type of grass

84. Where is the Great Barrier Reef located? -  In the Pacific Ocean

82. Which of the following states are found in pygmies? -  equatorial forest

83. When is World Earth Day celebrated? - 22 April

84. Charles Wood's mandate was related to which of the following? - Education

86.Who appointed Guru Nanak as his successor? - Guru Angad. Master

87. Which Mughal Emperor is known as  Rangila ? -  Muhammad Shah

88.Which year Sati was abolished by William Batting? - December 1829 A.D.

90. Who was the author of 'Indika'? - Mangasthenes

92. What is the total number of Sanskaras is -  16

93. Who was the author of  'Shahnama' -  Firdausi

94. State Museum of Bhopal was formerly known as -  Edward Museum

95. 'U and Me' campaign is related to - Dengue

96. Who is the brand ambassador of the Mother and Child Health Campaign of Madhya Pradesh government - Madhuri Dixit

97. Who wrote a book called 'Ignited Minds' - A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

98. 'Audi' is a car making company of which country - Germany

99, 'Maitri Express' rail service is related to - India - Pakistan

100. "Who issues" World Economic Outlook Report - International Monetary Fund


MPPSC PRELIMS SOLVED PAPER 2008 imp questions

MPPSC PRELIMS SOLVED PAPER 2008


1. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. Mohenjodaro, Hadappa, Ropar and Kalibangan are the main sites of the Indus Valley Civilization.

2. The people of Harappa developed planned cities with a network of roads and drains.


 


3. The people of Harappa were not aware of the use of metals.

 

Code:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 2 and 3 are correct

D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct


Show Answer


2. Which Indian king defeated Seleucus, who was appointed by Alexander as the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan?

A. Samudragupta

B. Ashoka

C. Bindusar

D. Chandragupta


Answer - D



3. Which English governor of East India Company was expelled from India by Aurangzeb?

A. Angier

B. Sir John Child

C. Sir John Geyer

D. Sir Nicholas Wait


Answer - B



4. England's East India Company is considered to be the first decisive military success in India -

A. Battle of Buxar

B. Battle of Plassey

C. Battle of Panipat

D. Battle of Haldighati


Answer - A



5. Revolution was started by the Bhils against the British -


 

A. In Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra

B. In Madhya Pradesh and Bihar

C. Bihar and Bengal

D. in Bengal and Maharashtra


Answer - A



6. The modern historian, who called the Revolt of 1857 as the first battle for independence, was -

A. Dr. R.C. Majumdar

B. Dr. S.N. Sen

C. V.D. Savarkar

D. Ashok Mehta


Answer - C



7. Bal Gangadhar Tilak used a newspaper to promote nationalism -

A. Yugantar

B. Patriotism

C. Kesari

D. Revolution


Answer - C



8. Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?

A. Most of the leaders were arrested and in jail.

B. The British finally agreed to the demands

C. Due to violence in Chauri-Chaura

D. They did not see any chance of success of the movement


Answer - C



9. Place the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. Dandi March

2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

3. Quit India Movement

4. Swadeshi Movement

Code:

A. 2, 4, 1, 3

B. 4, 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 1, 4, 3.

D. 4, 2, 3, 1


Answer - B



10. Which of the following is not included in the Human Development Index?

A. Life expectancy

B. Real Per Capita Income

C. Social inequality

D. Adult Literacy


Answer - C



11. Bharat Nirman is involved in (Choose the correct answer from the code given below) -

1. To bring additional one crore hectare under assured irrigation.

2. Connecting all the villages with a population of more than 2000 by road.

3. Connecting the remaining villages by telephone.

Code:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 2 and 3 are correct

D. None of the above


Answer - B



12. What is the size of the Eleventh Five Year Plan of India?

A. 3,64,471 crore Rs.

B. 36,447 crores Rs.

C. 36,44,718 crore.

D. 3,64,47,185 crore Rs.


Answer - C



13. Who is called the pioneer of liberalization of Indian economy?

A. Dr. Manmohan Singh

B. PV Narasimha Rao

C. Dr. Bimal Jalan

D. P. Chidambaram


Answer - A



14. The largest wheat producing state in India is -

A. Punjab

B. Haryana

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Madhya Pradesh


Answer - C



15. The largest tobacco producing state in India is -

A. Gujarat

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh


Answer - B



16. The Green Index was developed by

A. Environmental and Social Sustainable Development Division of the World Bank

B. United Nations Environment Program

C. United Nations Development Program

D. Kyoto Protocol


Answer - B



17. By which of the following has the Citizens' Guide to fight corruption been drawn?

A. Ministry of Family Welfare

B. Consumer Cooperative Societies

C. Central Vigilance Commission

D. Transparency International


Answer - C



18. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India is basically in federal form.

Reason (R): Article 352 provides for the condition of failure of constitutional machinery in the states.

Code:

A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is correct, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true


Answer - C



19. By the 44th Amendment of the Constitution of India, the following rights were removed from the category of Fundamental Rights -

A. Freedom of speech

B. Constitutional remedies

C. Property

D. Freedom of religion


Answer - C



20. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Vipin Chandra Pal 1. New India

b. Arvind Ghosh 2. Comrade

c. Brahmobandhav Upadhyay 3. Vande Mataram

c. Muhammad Ali 4. Sandhya

Code:

. a b c d

A. 1 3 4 2

B. 2 1 3 4

C. 2 1 4 3

D. 1 3 2 4


Answer - A





21. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Wook Principle / Harap Policy 1. Curzon

b. Division of Bengal


2. Clive

c. Double rule in Bengal 3. Dalhousie

d. Social Reform 4. Bantink

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 3 1 4

B. 3 1 4 2

C. 3 1 2 4

D. 2 3 4 1


Answer - C



 


22. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Block.

2. Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association.

Code:

A. Only 1 is correct

B. Only 2 is correct

C. Both 1 and 2 are correct

D. None of the above is correct


Answer - C



23. Jammu and Kashmir became an integral part of India -

A. On October 26, 1948

B. On 26 November 1948

C. On October 26, 1947

D. None of these


Answer - C



24. First war declared between India and Pakistan was fought

A. In 1942

B. In 1965

C. in 1966

D. in 1971


Answer - B



25. Assertion (A): The protest of Simon Commission was organized in Lahore in 1928 under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai.

Reason (R): Not a single Indian member was involved in the Simon Commission.

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false.

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.


Answer - A



26. Public Distribution System aims at -


 

A. Providing food security to the poor

B. Stopping hoarding and black-marketing

C. Preventing traders from charging more

D. All of the above


Answer - D



27. Who among the following, who was formerly the Secretary of Economic Affairs in the Government of India, became the Governor of Reserve Bank of India in September 2008?

A. YV Reddy

B. D. Rangarajan

C. Tk Nair

D. D. Subbarao


Answer - D



28. Assertion (A): Lehman Brothers (an investment banking company in the US) filed bankruptcy protection Chapter 11 in September 2008.

Reason (R): Subprime landing (less than perfect lending) was one of the main causes of the financial crisis.

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct. A is the correct explanation of R

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct. A is not the correct explanation of R.

C. Statement (A) is correct and Reason (R) is false.

D. Statement (A) is false and Reason (R) is correct.


Answer - A



29. Which of the following region contributes the most to India's Gross Domestic Product?

A. Primary sector

B. Secondary sector

C. Tertiary sector

D. All three contribute equally


Answer - C



30. Who is the final authority in India to approve five-year plans?

A. Union Council of Ministers

B. Planning Commission

C. Prime Minister

D. None of these


Answer - D



31. According to Article 82 of the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats of the Lok Sabha between the states is on the basis of census.

A. 1961

B. 1971

C. 1981

D. 1991


Answer - B



32. The maximum number of members in the Lok Sabha may be as prescribed in the Constitution of India -

A. 547

B. 545

C. 552

D. None of these


Answer - C



33. In order to become a member of Rajya Sabha, consider the following Statements in terms of qualifications and choose the correct answer from the code given below -

1. Must be at least 30 years of age.

2. Where the candidate is to be elected, must be registered as a voter in the voter list of that state.

3. The post of profit should not be held under the state.

Code:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 2 and 3 are correct

D. None of these


Answer - D



34. Which of the following political parties has not been recognized as a national party by the Election Commission of India?

A. Nationalist Congress Party

B. Bahujan Samaj Party

C. Communist Party of India

D. Samajwadi Party


Answer - D



35. Which of the following parties is neither a recognized national party nor recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Bahujan Samaj Party

B. Samajwadi Party

C. Gondwana Republic Party

D. Communist Party of India


Answer - C



36. Under the "Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006", the rights before which date have been recognized?

A. 13 September 1976

B. 13 December 2006

C. 13 September 2005

D. 13 December 2005


Answer - D



37. Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise (clockwise) in the southern hemisphere and counter-clockwise (counterclockwise) in the northern hemisphere.

Reason (R): Wind patterns in the northern and southern hemispheres are determined by the Coriolis effect.

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct and R gives the correct explanation of A.

B. Statements (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement A is correct, but Reason (R) is false.

D. Statement A is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - A



38. Arrange the following in the order from west to east and the correct answer from the codes given below.

Select -

1. London

2. Lisbon

3. Frankfurt

4. Beirut

Code:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 2, 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 1, 4, 3

D. 1, 2, 4, 3


Answer - B



39

. Make pairs of the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Kenya 1. Tashkent

b. Uganda 2. Nairobi

c. Uzbekistan 3. Kiev

d. Youken 4. Kampala

Code:

. a b c d

A. 4 2 1 3

B. 2 4 1 3

C. 2 4 3 1

D. 4 2 3 1


Answer - B



40. Place the following in descending order by size and choose the correct answer from the code given below -

1. Jupiter (Jupiter)

2. Uranus

3. Earth

4. Saturn

Code:

A. 1, 4, 3, 2

B. 4, 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 4, 2, 3

D. 4, 1, 3, 2


Answer - C





41. Steel is mainly a mixture of iron and -

A. Chromium

B. Nickel

C. Manganese

D. Carbon


Answer - A



 


42. A horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros) is found in the following territories -

A. Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura

B. West Bengal and Assam

C. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam

D. West Bengal and Tripura


Show Answer


43. Which national park / sanctuary has been selected to keep the lions of Gir?

A. screw

B. Kanha

C. Bandhavgarh

D. Palpur Kuno


Answer - D



44. The states with maximum and minimum population density in India are -

A. Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh

B. West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim

D. West Bengal and Sikkim


Answer - B



45. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-1 List-II

a. Jamunapari 1. Cow

b. Bhadavari 2. Goat

c. Kadavanath 3. Buffalo

d. Malvi 4. Poultry (Poultry)

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 3 4 1

B. 2 1 4 3

C. 4 1 2 3

D. 4 3 2 1


Answer - A



46. ​​Walking fan in hot weather makes one feel comfortable, because -



 

A. The fan gives cool air

B. Our sweat evaporates rapidly.

C. More heat is radiated from our body.

D. Conductivity of air increases.


Answer - B



47. Which one of the following lenses is used to correct near vision?

A. Convex

B. Concave

C. Cyclindrical

D. None of these


Answer - B



48. A piece of ice is floating in a glass of water, what will be the effect on the water level when the ice melts? that -

A. will increase

B. will be less

C. will remain the same

D. First increases then decreases


Answer - C



49. Light year unit is -

A. Time

B. Distance

C. the speed of light

D. of speed compared to the speed of light


Answer - B



50. To increase the length of the network without decreasing the signal strength, we will use -

A. Repeater

B. router

C. Gateway

D. Switch


Answer - A



51. Ozone hole formation is highest -

A. Over India

B. Over Africa

C. Over Antarctica

D. over Europe


Answer - C



52. Indian ancient super continent was part of Gondwanaland, it included the following landmass of the present time -

A. South America

B. Africa

C. Australia

D. All these


Answer - D



53. Which plateau is situated between the Aravalli and Vindhya ranges?

A. Malwa Plateau

B. Chota Nagpur Plateau

C. Deccan Plateau

D. Peninsular Plateau


Answer - A



54. Which state of India borders with three countries Nepal, Bhutan and China respectively?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Meghalaya

C. West Bengal

D. Sikkim


Answer - D



55. Which important latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?

A. 23 ° 30 ′ South

B. 33 ° 30 ′ Answer

C. 0

D. 23 ° 30 ′ Answer


Answer - D



56. The westernmost point of India is -

A. 68 ° 7 ′ in West, Gujarat

B. 68 ° 7 ′ in West, Rajasthan

C. 68 ° 7 ′ East, in Gujarat

D. 68 ° 7 ′ East, in Rajasthan


Answer - C



57. Which of the following river does not meet Yamuna river?

A. Ken

B. Betwa

C. Son

D. Chambal


Answer - C



58. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

List-I List-II

a. Hirakud Project 1. West Bengal

b. Haldia Refinery 2. Orissa

c. Tarapur Atomic Center 3. Karnataka

d. Kudremukh Hills 4. Maharashtra

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 1 3 4

B. 1 2 4 3

C. 2 1 4 3

D. 1 2 3 4


Answer - C



59. Assertion (A): Electricity distribution companies in India calculate the power consumption in kWh (kilowatt hours)

She does.

Reason (R): The electrical system in India operates at a frequency of 60 Hz.

Code:

A. Statement (A) and Reason (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Statements (A) and Reason (R) are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - C



60. Which one of the following options is different from the other three?

A. Hematite

B. Magnetite

C. Limonite

D. Bauxite


Answer - D







61. One million white is approximately -

A. Gigabyte

B. Kilobytes

C. Megabytes

D. Terabyte


Answer - C



 


62. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. The dot net (net) framework is developed by Microsoft.


 


2. Java is an open source technology developed by Sun Microsystems.

Code:

A. Only 1 is correct

B. Only 2 is correct

C. Both 1 and 2 are correct

D. No one is right


Answer - C

Hide an

swer


63. Coal bed methane pie is -

A. in Shahdol

B. In the ocean

C. in Jabalpur

D. in Ujjain


Answer - A



64. During the Bhopal gas tragedy, the gas that came out was -

A. Methyl isothasocyanate

B. Ethyl isothasocyanate

C. Methyl isocyanate

D. Ethyl isocyanate


Answer - C



65. Assertion (A): Gypsum is added to cooled cement clinkers.

Reason (R): Gypsum accelerates cement setting time.

Code:

A. Both the statement (A) and the reason (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - A



66. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -


 

List-I List-II

a. Anemia 1. Vitamin 'B' deficiency


 


b. 2. Goiter, iron deficiency

c. Night-blindness 3. Iodine deficiency

d. Berry-Berry 4. Vitamin 'A' deficiency

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 1 3 4

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 1 2 3 4

D. 2 3 1 4


Answer - B



67. Assertion (A): People of 'A-B' blood group are universal recipients.

Reason (R): There is no antigen in the red blood cell of blood group 'A-B' and hence there is no agglutination with any other blood group.

Code:

A. Both the statement (A) and the reason (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - C



68. Name of spacecraft of lunar mission of India is -

A. Chandrayan I

B. Chandrayan II

C. Space

D. Change I


Answer - A



69. Which of the following did not jointly win the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2008?

A. Tohida Yasakawa

B. Makoto Kabayashi

C. Toshihide Maskawa

D. Yochiro Nambu


Answer - A



70. Aryabhata was launched -

A. On April 19, 1975

B. On December 6, 1957

C. On January 31, 1958

D. on October 2, 1980


Answer - A



71. Fill in the blank space -

59 21 37 81 ………

A. 163

B. 153

C. 183

D. 203


Answer - B



72. A school has 12 teachers. One of them retired after completing 62 years of age and a new teacher was appointed in his place. This change reduces the average age of the staff by 3 years. How old is the new teacher?

A. 22 years

B. 24 years

C. 26 years

D. 28 years


Answer - C



73. A 50 meter long train passes over a bridge at a speed of 30 km / h. If the train takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, then the length of the bridge is -

A. 200 meters

B. 250 m

C. 300 m

D. 350 m


Answer - B



74. In an open field, Rakesh walks 20 meters towards north, turns left and walks 40 meters, turns left again and walks 50 meters. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 110 m

B. 70 m

C. 50 m

D. 40 meters


Answer - C



75. Fill in the blanks -

McCain: Obama:: Palin: ………… ..

A. Gore

B. Rice

C. Biden

D. Clinton


Answer - C



76. Regarding which picture Doctors, Engineers and Professors

Best reflects

A.mppsc

B.mppsc

C.mppsc

D.mppsc


Answer - D



77. Which subject has the highest percentage of passing?

A. History

B. Geography

C. Economics

D. is equal


Answer - A



78. In which subject are the most first-class divisors?

A. History

B. Geography

C. Economics

D. is equal.


Answer - C



79. In which subject the average of marks is maximum?

A. History

B. Geography

C. Economics

D. is equal


Answer - C



80. There are 12 teams in a football league. The two best teams play in the final after the tournament is played on the basis of double (double) round robin. Round Robin means that each team plays against every other team. How many matches will be played in the tournament?

A. 132

B. 133

C. 67

D. 66


Answer - B







81. One of the most widespread computer viruses that attracted public attention was the same design to infect MS-DOS on March 6, 1992, the virus is named -

A. Brain

B. catch me if you can

C. Michael Angelo

D. Friday the third


Answer - C



 


82. Which of the following is not an output device?

A. Drum Pen Plotter

B. CRT Monitor

C. Earphone

D. Digital Camera


Show Answer


83. Word processors, spread sheet examples are -

A. System Software

B. Application Software

C. Platform Software

D. None of these


Answer - B



84. A database consists of feeds -

A. Label

B. Table of information

C. Group of related records

D. Range of information


Answer - D



85. An exclusive private network used by employees of a company in one place

The classification will be -

A. Internet

B. Local Area Network

C. Wide Area Network

D. ARPANET


Answer - B



86. SWAN under the National e-Governance Plan. (SWAN) is -


 

A. State Wide Area Network

B. CStums Wide Area Network

C. State Wise Area Network

D. System wise area network


Answer - C



87. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. Proxy Server TCP / IP (TCP / IP) provides the address.


 


2. The proxy server forwards requests received from clients to other servers.

Code:

A. Only 1 is correct

B. Only 2 is correct

C. Both 1 and 2 are correct

D. No one is right


Show Answer


88. A new browser has been launched by Google's company in the third quarter of 2008. this is -

A. Chrome

B. Lycos

C. Alta-Vista

D. Mozilla Fire-Fox


Answer - A



89. CSC under National e-Governance Plan. (CSC) is -

A. Citizen Service Center

B. Common Service Center

C. Community Service Center

D. Computer Service Center


Answer - B



90. Fill in the blank -

5 7 74

11 8 185

…. 6 205

A. 13

B. 15

C. 10

D. 12


Answer - A



Directions (Questions 91 to 94)


Answer questions 91 to 94 based on the information given below -

Secretaries, Rahul, Virendra, Anil and Ishant are wearing red, blue, white, black and brown pants and hats (not in order), none are wearing the same color pants and caps. Everyone has different colors of pants and colors of caps. All five items are being carried from VAT, hair, stumps, gloves and pads.

It is also given that -

(i) Sachin is wearing a brown cap.

(ii) Ishant's pants color is not blue or red.

(iii) Gloves are being carried by him, who is wearing blue pants.

(iv) Rahul is wearing white cap.

(v) Virendra is wearing black pants.

(vi) Anil is wearing a red cap and brown pants.

(vii) One wearing red print is carrying pads.

(viii) The one wearing brown pants is carrying VAT.


91. What is the color of Virendra's cap?

A. Red

B. White

C. Blue

D. Can not be determined


Answer - C



92. Who is wearing the white pants?

A. Stumps

B. Child

C. Gloves

D. Stamps or hair


Answer - D



93. Who is wearing blue pants?

A. Sachin

B. Ishant

C. Sachin or Rahul

D. Rahul or Ishant


Answer - C



94. If Rahul is wearing red pants, then the correct combination is -

A. Sachin-Brown Hat-Black Pants

B. Anil-Red Hat-Blue Pants

C. Virendra-blue cap-brown pants

D. Ishant-black hat-white pants


Answer - D



95. Assertion (A): The per capita food production in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average.

Reason (R): The productivity of food grains in Madhya Pradesh is below the national average.

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct and R gives the correct explanation of A.

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - A



96. Which of the following cities is J.J. NNURM Is not included in?

A. Indore

B. Jabalpur

C. Gwalior

D. Ujjain


Answer - C



97. How many districts of Madhya Pradesh N. R. E. G. a. Are included under?

A. All districts

B. 18 districts

C. 31 districts

D. None of these


Answer - A



98. Which of the following districts has the highest literacy rate?

A. Bhopal

B. Narsinghpur

C. Jabalpur

D. Indore


Answer - B



99. Which of the following places has a 500 MW unit for power generation?

A. Birsinghpur

B. Table

C. Mat

D. Chhindwara


Answer - A



100. Arrange the following districts in decreasing order of fertilizer use per hectare and choose the correct answer from the code given below -

1. Indore

2. Dindori

3. Hoshangabad

4. Mandla

Code:

(1) 1, 3, 4, 2

(2) 4, 2, 1, 3

(3) 4, 1, 3, 2

(4) 1, 2, 3, 4


Answer - A





101. In which of the following districts, the sex ratio is the most adverse?

A. Morena

B. Balaghat

C. Jhabua

D. Rewa


Answer - A




 


102. Out of the eleventh (XI) five-year plan of Madhya Pradesh, which region has been given the highest allocation?

A. Health

B. Education

C. Energy

D. Irrigation


Answer - D



103. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Brocade Wallet 1. Ujjain

b. Print of Bhairavgarh 2. Dhar

c. Bagh's handicrafts 3. Bhopal

d. Sarees of Chanderi 4. Ashok Nagar

Code:

. a b c d

A. 3 1 2 4

B. 1 3. 4 2

C. 1 3 2 4

D. 3 1 4 2


Answer - A



104. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of the following minerals in the country -

A. Coal and Diamond

B. copper and iron

C. Coal and copper

D. copper and diamond


Answer - D



105. Which of the following national highways has the highest length in Madhya Pradesh?

A. NH-3 Agra-Gwalior-Dewas-Bombay (Mumbai)

B. NH-7 Varanasi-Rewa-Jabalpur-Salem

C. NH-12 Jabalpur-Bhopal-Jaipur

D. NH-26 Jhansi-Sagar-Lakhnadoun


Answer - A



106. Madhya Pradesh produces the most of which crop in the country?


 

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. tide

D. Soybean


Answer - D



107. Which of the following cities is closest to the Indian Standard Times?

A. Rewa

B. Sagar

C. Ujjain

D. Hoshangabad


Answer - A



108. Which of the following is not a World Heritage Site?

A. Khajuraho Temple

B. Bhimbe

Taka caves

C. Sanchi Stupa

D. Mandu's Palace


Answer - D



109. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

In Madhya Pradesh -

1. The District Panchayat President is elected by indirect election.

2. 50% seats in Panchayati Raj are reserved for women.

3. The sarpanch is elected by direct election.

Code:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 2 and 3 are correct

D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct


Answer - D



110. Where is the automobile industry group of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Pithampur

B. Malanpur

C. Mandideep

D. Maneri


Answer - A



111. Following the assassination of Swami Laxmanananda Saraswati in August 2008, violence erupted against Christians in Orissa, which district was most affected?

A. Why

B. Bargarh

C. Sambalpur

D. Kandhamal


Answer - D



112. Which river of Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and created a calamity situation?

A. Ganges

B. Gandak

C. Kosi

D. Ghagra


Answer - C



113. Where did Ratan Tata decide to move the Nano project out of Singur?

A. Pithampur

B. Poona

C. Sanand (Gujarat)

D. Gopalpur


Answer - C



114. Make correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Narayan Murthy 1. Wipro

b. Azim Premji 2. T. C. S. S.

c. Ramalingam Raju 3. Infosys

d. Ramadurai 4. Satyam Computers

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 1 4 3

B. 3 1 4 2

C. 3 4 1 2

D. 2 4 1 3


Answer - B



115. The first computer literate district of the country is -

A. Ernakulam

B. Villupuram

C. Theruvallur

D. Malappuram


Answer - D



116. When did India win the hockey medal in the Olympic Games for the last time?

A. 1964 Tokyo

B. 1972 Munich

C. 1976 Montreal

D. 1980 Moscow


Answer - D



117. Where was the second All Star Asian Athletics Championship held in September 2008?

A. Pune

B. Bangalore

C. Indore

D. Bhopal


Answer - D



118. Who is the first Indian female chess player to cross 2600 in ELA rating?

A. Koneru Hampi

B. Tania Sachdev

C. P. Harika

D. S. Vijayalakshmi


Answer - A



119. In August 2008, A.F.C. Who won the Challenge Cup Football Championship?

A. India

B. Tajikistan

C. Turkmenistan

D. D.P.R. Korea


Answer - A



120. Which of the following is not a style of swimming?

A. Freestyle

B. Back stroke

C. Front stroke

D. Butterfly


Answer - C







121. Which of the following awards is given to sportspersons by the Government of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Arjuna Award

B. Vikram Award

C. Dronacharya Award

D. Khel Ratna Award


Answer - B



 


122. Madhya Pradesh won a record number of medals at the 33rd National Games in 2007 in Guwahati. In which sport did Madhya Pradesh win the most gold medals?

A. Karate

B. Wuxu

C. shooting

D. Athletics


Answer - A



123. U.S. Who won the mixed doubles at the Open 2008?

A. Leander Paes-Cara Black

B. Leander Paes-Lisa Raymond

C. Mahesh Bhupathi-Martina Hingis

D. Mahesh Bhupathi-Mary Pearce


Answer - A



124. In September 2008, ONGC-IB in Bangalore SF Who won the World Billiards Championship?

A. Pankaj Advani

B. Geet Sethi

C. Rupesh Shah

D. Peter Gilchrist


Answer - A



125. With reference to Beijing Olympics consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the code given below -

1. Michael Phelge won eight gold medals.

2. Usain Bolt 100m And 200 m Ran became the fastest person by winning.

3. Roger Federer won a gold medal in men's singles in tennis.

Code:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 2 and 3 are correct

D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct


Answer - A



126. Virendra Sehwag scored his second triple century in Test cricket. He is only the third player to do so in history. The other two players are -


 

A. Brian Lara and Gary Sobers

B. Donald Bradman and Volley Hammond

C. Gary Sobers and Volley Hammond

D. Donald Bradman and Brian Lara


Answer - D



127. This legendary hockey player scored many goals (about 24 goals) for India in the 1932 and 1936 Olympics. There was a demand in the media to celebrate his birth centenary on 8 September 2008. He spent his last life in Gwalior. Identify them -

A. Dhyanchand

B. Captain Roop Singh

C. Gurmeet Singh

D. AIS Section


Answer - B



128. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

1. Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in 10m rifle shooting at Beijing Olympics.

2. Sushil Kumar won bronze medal in fly-weight boxing at Beijing Olympics.

Code:

A. 1 is correct

B. 2 is correct

C. Both are correct

D. None of this is true


Answer - A



129. Which film received the best feature film award at the 54th National Film Awards?

A. Pulijanam (Malayalam)

B. Kabul Express

C. Hang on Munna Bhai

D. Podokkhep (Bengali)


Answer - A



130. Who among the following received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award last year (2008)?

A. M.S. Dhoni

B. Vishwanathan Anand

C. Abhinav Bindra

D. Sachin Tendulkar


Answer - A


131. 'Project Tiger' was started in India -


A. 1970

B. In 1973

C. in 1981

D. in 1984


Answer - B



132.

Assertion (A): (CERN) C.E.R.N. (European Organization for Nuclear Research) is the largest laboratory of particle physics in the world.

Reason (R): The name of the technical body established 2 years before the above organization came into existence is French Compression (CERN).

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - A



133. India's first nuclear power station is -

A. B.A.R.C.

B. Tarapur Atomic Energy Center

C. Narora Atomic Energy Center

D. None of these


Answer - B



134. If at the end of one's domain name is .edu.us, then it is -

A. An international institution

B. A non-profit organization

C. An educational institution in Australia

D. USA (USA) an educational institution


Answer - D



135. Assertion (A): A plant that is deficient in Nitrogen will show signs of short stature and light green and yellow leaves.

Reason (R): Nitrogen is responsible for green leaf development.

Code:

A. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both statement (A) and reason (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is false

D. Statement (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true


Answer - A



136. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Banquet 1. Ujjain

b. Durgavati 2. Vidisha

c. Samudragupta 3. Dhar

d. Ashok 4. Gondwana

Code:

. a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 3 4 1 2

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 3 4 2 1


Answer - D



137. How many of the following served as Chief Minister for the longest time?

A. Pandit Ravi Shankar Shukla

B. Arjun Singh

C. Dr. Kailashnath Katju

D. Digvijay Singh


Answer - D



138. Consider the time of sunrise in Sidhi and Jhabua and choose the correct option -

A. Sunrise in Sidhi will be 1 hour before

B. Sunrise will be 1 hour before in Jhabua

C. Sunrise in Sidhi will be 1/2 hour before

D. Sunrise in Jhabua will be 1/2 hour before


Answer - C



139. Which of the following dam is not on Narmada River?

A. Bargi

B. Omkareshwar

C. Indira Sagar

D. Baan Sagar


Answer - D



140. Which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has a problem of soil erosion (soil erosion)?

A. Jabalpur

B. Bhopal

C. Morena

D. Khandwa


Answer - C



141. ‘Congratulations’ is -

A. Folk dance of Bundelkhand

B. Folk dance of Malwa

C. The festival celebrated in Bhopal on the second day of Diwali

D. Folk music of Bundelkhand


Answer - A



142. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I List-II

a. Chhindwara 1. Bhil

b. Mandla 2. Bharia

c. Jhabua 3. Gond

d. Shivpuri 4. Sahariya

Code:

. a b c d

A. 2 4 1 3

B. 1 3 2 4

C. 2 3 1 4

D. 1 4 2 3


Answer - C



143. Sanskrit University has been established -

A. In Gwalior

B. In Ujjain

C. in Rewa

D. in Jabalpur


Answer - B



144. In the year 2008, two new districts were formed in Madhya Pradesh? Identify -

A. Alirajpur and Burhanpur

B. Burhanpur and Anuppur

C. Singrauli and Anuppur

D. Singrauli and Alirajpur


Answer - D



145. Who among the following cricketers from Madhya Pradesh has not played a Test match for India?

A. Narendra Hirwani

B. Amay Khorasia

C. Mushtaq Ali

D. Rajesh Chauhan


Answer - D



146. Make the correct pairs and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -

List-I

a. Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIIT

DM)

b. Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM)

c. Indian Institute of Management (IIM)

d. Indian Institute of Science, Education Aid Research (IISER)

List-II

1. Indore

2. Bhopal

3. Jabalpur

4. Gwalior

Code:

. a b c d

A. 3 4 2 1

B. 3 4 1 2

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 4 3 2 1


Answer - C



147. After the lifting of the ban on India by the Nuclear Supply Group, which country first signed an agreement with India, which would supply civil nuclear technology to India?

A. USA

B. Italy

C. Russia

D. France


Answer - D



148. In August 2008, independence of two Georgia states was recognized by Russia, these two states are -

A. Kosovo and Dushanbe

B. Kosovo and South Ossetia

C. Abkhazia and Dushanbe

D. South Ossetia and Abkhazia


Answer - D



149. The year 2008 was declared as International Year by the United Nations -

A. Sanitation

B. Drinking water

C. Literacy

D. Reduction in infant mortality


Answer - A



150. Which of the following countries is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group?

A. China

B. New Zealand

C. Ireland

D. Iran


Answer - D

Daily current affair questions and answers onliner 16 january

 1. Jalli kattu is celebrated in - Tamil Nadu

2. Animal Welfare Board of  India was established in - 1962.

3. The headquarter of Animal welfare board of india is in - Ballabhgarh , distt Faridabad, Hariyana

4. The target of PMKVY 3.0 beneficiaries in the financial year 2020-21  is - 8 lakh

5. PMKVY Scheme was started in - 2015

6. Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established in - 1st July, 1916

7. The headquarter of Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) is in - Kolkata, West Bengal

8. 'Kural' a tamil literature was written by - Sant Tiruvallubar

January 12, 2021

mp naib tehsildar solved paper departmental exam 2018


 15th Sep 2018 03:00PM


Topic:- Service Matters


1) How many days of maximum leave is entitled in case of child adoption? 


1. 67 Days 

2. 60 Days 

3. 135 Days 

4. 90 Days 


Correct Answer :-  67 Days 


2) The common upper age limit criterion for recruitment to uniformed services such as Police, Forest etc. is different from all other departments set by GAD. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of uniformed department posts to be filled by State P.S.C? 


1. Upper age limit for non M.P. Domicile candidate is 28 years. 

2. Upper age limit for M.P. Domicile male candidate unreserved class is 33 years. 

3. Upper age limit for MP domicile women candidate belonging to unreserved class is 38 years. 

4. Upper age limit for MP domicile women S.T category is 43 years. 


Correct Answer :-  Upper age limit for MP domicile women 8S.T category is 43 years. 


3) Which one of the following is governed by M.P. Civil Services (Leave) Rules 1977? 


1. Optional Leave 

2. Local Holiday 

3. Commuted Leave 

4, Casual Leave 


Correct Answer :-  Commuted Leave 


4) At present, participation in the activities of which of the following organisations is not restricted to a Govt. servant under MP Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965? 


1. Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad 

2. Bharatiya Janata Party 

3, Indian National Congress 

4, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh 


Correct Answer :-  Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh 


5) Which one of the following is not true with regard to reservation policy for M P Domicile candidates? 


1. Women candidates of all categories e.g. 8.C; $.T; OBC; UR are given 33% lateral reservation. 

2. Women candidates are given horizontal reservation of 33% in their respective categories e.g. S.C; S.T; OBC; UR

3. OBC class candidate are given 14% lateral reservation. 

4. SC category candidates are given 16% lateral reservation. 

 

Correct Answer :-  Women candidates of all categories e.g. S.C; 8.T; OBC; UR are given 33% lateral reservation. 


6) Without sanction of competent authority, a Govt. servant can accept fee for any work done after office hours by him from any public body or any private person up to a maximum of


1. Rs. 1000 

2. Rs. 750

3. Rs. 500 

4. None of these 


Correct Answer :-  None of these 


7) Govt. servants may be permitted to act as an arbitrator for settlement of dispute, subject to some conditions. Which one of the following conditions is not TRUE? 


1. A Govt. servant acts as an arbitrator for private parties as a part of his official duties without accepting fees. 

2. A Govt. servant shall not act as an arbitrator in any case without sanction of his immediate official superior, or unless he is directed to act by a court having authority to appoint an arbitrator. 

3. If a Govt. servant acts as an arbitrator at the private request of disputants, then he shall accept fee up to Rs. 1000 only. 

4. If he acts by appointment of a Court of law, then he may accept such fee as the court may fix. 


Correct Answer :-  Ifa Govt. servant acts as an arbitrator at the private request of disputants, then he shall accept fee up to Rs. 1000 only. 


8) M.P. Civil Service (Leave) Rules 1977 are not applicable to which one of the following categories: 


1. Person in Probation period.

2. Person moved on leave without prior sanction, 

3. Person drawing his salary from the Contingency fund. 

4. Persons working on temporary post. 


Correct Answer :-  Person drawing his salary from the Contingency fund. 


9) Which of the following pension schemes will cover employees appointed after 01 January 2005 


1. Contributory Pension Scheme 2005 

2. MP. Civil Service (Pension) Rules, 1976 

3. National Pension Scheme 

4, Old-age Pension Scheme 


Correct Answer :-  Contributory Pension Scheme 2005 


10) Which of the following is not recoverable from the suspension allowance? 


1. Income Tax 

2. Contribution to GPF 

3. House Rent 

4, Advance received from Government 


Correct Answer :-  Contribution to GPF 


11) Which of the following statements is FALSE with regard to General Provident Fund? 


1. Employee on deputation shall remain contributor to GPF as he was before leaving for deputation service. 

2. There shall be no GPF deduction from a suspended employee. 

3. General Provident Fund Rules shall not be applicable on employees appointed on or after 1° January 2005,

4. GPF deduction from salary shall be stopped before 12 months of retirement.


Correct Answer :- GPF deduction from salary shall be stopped before 12 months of retirement.


12) Increment in pay will be effected on which of the following dates after implementation of 7th Pay Commission ? 


1. On 1* July of every year

2. On 1 January of every year

3. On 1* July or 1 January on completion of one year 

4. On 1 April of every year 


Correct Answer :-  On 1* July or 1° January on completion of one year 


13) What treatment would be appropriate for wilful absence period from duty by a Govt. servant violating the Rule 7 of MP Civil Service (Conduct) Rules, 1965? 


1. Impose fine of Rs. 10,000 

2. Absence should be regularised 

3. Lien shall be lost

4. Treat wilful absence period as “Dies-Non” for all purpose 


Correct Answer :-  Treat wilful absence period as “Dies-Non” for all purpose 


14) What is the additional allowance that can be given to the person making photo copies in government office? 


1. 300 Rs. Per month 

2. 150 Rs. Per month 

3. No Payment

4. 500 Rs. Per month 


Correct Answer :-  150 Rs. Per month


15) What is the minimum contribution to GPF of a Govt. Employee?


1. 1000 Rupees per month 

2. 12.5 percent 

3. 5 percent 

4. 12 percent


Correct Answer :-  12 percent 


16) In case of termination or expulsion of a Govt. servant, which of the following is true in the context of Leave Account? 


1. Earned Leave in account shall be encashed up to accumulation limit. 

2. All types of Leave in account shall be treated as zero on that day. 

3. Casual Leave in account shall be added in Earned Leave account. 

4. Medical Leave can be still availed. 


Correct Answer :-  All types of Leave in account shall be treated as zero on that day.


17) When an extra ordinary leave is sanctioned to an employee, he may get leave salary up to:-


1. 90% of monthly salary that has been drawn before going on leave. 

2. 50% of monthly salary that has been drawn before going on leave. 

3. 0% of monthly salary that has been drawn before going on leave. 

4. 25% of monthly salary that has been drawn before going on leave. 


Correct Answer :-  0% of monthly salary that has been drawn before going on leave. 


18) When an employee is suspended by a competent authority, then it is essential to issue a charge sheet adhering to procedure within a prescribed time period, otherwise the suspension order will be deemed automatically quashed. In this context which statement is not true? 


1. If state is not disciplinary authority then charge sheet time limit can be extended up to 90 days by the order of Govt. 

2. Charge sheet shall be issued with 90 days from date of suspension, if disciplinary authority is State Govt.

3. Charge sheet shall be issued within 30 days from the date of suspension. 

4. Charge sheet shall be issued within 45 days from date of suspension, if not issued by Govt. 


Correct Answer :-  Charge sheet shall be issued within 30 days from the date of suspension. 


19) Who is ultimately responsible to adopt the provisions of MP Civil Services Rules in the Corporation/Board/Autonomous body of Madhya Pradesh for their employees in the name and style of that organisation instead of name as “ MP Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965”? 


1. Administrative Department which is the controlling authority of the organisation 

2. Chief Secretary 

3. General Administration Department 

4. Home Department 


Correct Answer :-  Administrative Department which is the controlling authority of the organisation 


20) Who will fix the pay under Madhya Pradesh Vetan Punarikshan Niyam 2017 


1. Principal Secretary of Department 

2. Head of the Office 

3. Head of the Department 

4. Accountant General, Madhya Pradesh 


Correct Answer :-  Head of the Office 


21) A Govt. servant was allotted a house in which there was a servant quarter attached to it and he was paying license fee of Rs. 7000 per month from his salary to the government. He sublet this servant quarter to a servant of his friend for a rent of Rs. 1000 per month. Under which rule of the MP Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965, is such subletting up to Rs. 1000 per month rent is allowed? 


1.14

2.17

3. Not permitted under any rule

4. 3(B)


Correct Answer :-  Not permitted under any rule 


22) Under Rule 27 of M.P. Civil Services (Leave) Rules 1977, which of the following statements is not correct? 



1. Employee of a department, where there is a provision of Vacation Leave, avails the full vacation leave then no earned leave is credited in his leave account. 

2. If employee is instructed not to avail vacation leave of more than 15 days then it will be treated that he has not availed any part of Vacation Leave. 

3. Vacation Leave cannot be availed along with commuted or earned leave.

4. In a year when employee is deprived of availing Vacation Leave, Earned Leave subject to a maximum of 30 days may be credited in his leave account. 


Correct Answer :- Vacation Leave cannot be availed along with commuted or earned leave. 


23) If any question arises relating to interpretation of the Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965, then to whom shall it be referred to?


1. Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court

2. Government of Madhya Pradesh 

3. Chairman Human Rights Commission of MP 

4. Chairman Public Service Commission of Madhya Pradesh


Correct Answer :-  Government of Madhya Pradesh 


24) It is mandatory for all Govt departments to make provisions for reservation in their departmental Recruitment Rules. Who is competent department to frame Reservation Rules that shall be incorporated in departmental Recruitment Rules for all departments? 


1. Tribal Welfare Department Govt. of M.P. 

2. Concerned department, Govt. of M.P. while making their own Recruitment Rules. 

3. General Administration Department Govt of M.P. 

4, Scheduled Caste Welfare Department Govt. of M.P. 


Correct Answer :-  General Administration Department Govt of M.P. 


25) Leave not due shall be adjusted against which of the following leaves? 


1. Earned Leave 

2. Half Pay Leave 

3. Study Leave 

4, Commuted Leave 


Correct Answer :  Half Pay Leave


(26) As per the Madhya Pradesh Government Servants (Service Association) Rules, 1967, Government will enter into correspondence with an association if it represents minimum of percentage of the category of Govt. servants which it seeks to represent. 


1. 33%

2. 20%

3. 67%

4. 50%


Correct Answer :-  20%


27) An employee was re-appointed after his retirement. On retirement he has availed benefits of leave encashment up to the ceiling which was available. He served for 5 years after retirement and 150 days Earned Leave was accumulated in his account. Up to what extent can Terminal Leave be sanctioned? 


1. 0 days 

2. Upto 100 days 

3. Upto 150 days 

4. Upto 50 days 


Correct Answer :-  Odays


28) In Govt Service, what is the percentage, fixed for filling of Assistant Grade 3 Post from Class 4 employees? /


1. 20%

2. 25%

3. 15%

4. 10%


Correct Answer :-  25%


29) In accordance with the MP Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965, “Move on leave without prior sanction” is misconduct. In an office of District Excise Officer, all class II & class IV servants went on mass leave without prior sanction. Consequently disciplinary actions were initiated. In this case, who is competent to close this disciplinary action? 



1. Chief Secretary.

2. Head of the Department 

3, District Collector 

4, District Excise officer 


Correct Answer :-  Head of the Department


30) If a suspended Government Employee dies during suspension period what payments ought to be made to the family of the deceased? 


1. Full payment of salary from date of suspension to death, which he is entitled 

3. Suspension allowance from Date of Suspension to Death 

4. Decision will be taken after completion of Proceedings.


Correct Answer :-  Full payment of salary from date of suspension to death, which he is entitled /



Topic:- Revenue Terminology & Administration


1)  ‘Legal Practitioner’ under M.P.Land.Revenue Code means: 


1. Only a person recognized under s.3 of Legal Practitioners Act 1879 

2. Only a person recognized under s.51 of Advocates Act 1961

3. Only a person defined under s.2(r) of M.P.L.R.C 

4. All of these 


Correct Answer :-  All of these 


2)  How many tehsils and districts were declared drought affected in the year 2017-18 by the Revenue Department of Madhya Pradesh government due to the low rainfall? 


1. 23 districts and 152 tehsils

2. 35 districts and 205 tehsils 

3. 28 districts and 195 tehsils 

4, 18 districts and 133 tehsils 


Correct Answer :-  18 districts and 133 tehsils 


3) In the year 2017-18, how much budget was sanctioned by the State Disaster Redemption Fund to the drought affected districts in Madhya Pradesh? 


1. 18178.53 lakh rupees 

2. 158234.56 lakh rupees 

3. 4131.71 lakh rupees 

4. 2562.56 lakh rupees 


Correct Answer :-  158234.56 lakh rupees


4) In which year was the Madhya Pradesh Land Records Management Committee established for the implementation of the National Land Records Modernization Program in Madhya Pradesh? 


1. 2008

2. 2014

3. 2009

4. 2011


Correct Answer :-  2011


5) Patwari Training Center is not located in which of the following places in Madhya Pradesh? 


1. Hoshangabad 

2. Ujjain 

3. Jabalpur 

4. Indore 


Correct Answer :-  Indore 



6) Land revenue receipts are deposited under which of the following Accounts? 


1. Major Head (MH) 8229 

2. Major Head (MH) 0039

3, Major Head (MH) 0029 

4, Major Head (MH) 2039 


Correct Answer :-  Major Head (MH) 0029 


7)  Which among the following sections in Department of Revenue of Madhya Pradesh deals with the allotment/management of Government land (Nazul)? 


1. 2A Branch 

2. 4A Branch 

3. 4B Branch 

4. 2B Branch 


Correct Answer :-  2B Branch 


(8) Which of these define Gair Haqdar under M.P. Land Revenue Code? 


1. One class of tenant in earlier Vindhya Pradesh region / ud & fdeq Wed aad pyct ch] Up at

2. One class of tenant in earlier Sironj region / yd Rreist aay pyct ch] Up at

3. Who does not have ownership upon land / TSAI af UV als tated Tél

4. Unauthorised possessor of land / af ob sulted ponent


Correct Answer :-  One class of tenant in earlier Vindhya Pradesh region / ud & fdeq wel aa A pyct Ol Uh ay


9)  Which of the following statements correctly defines “Nazul”? 


1. Such land of Urban or semi-urban area, which is appropriate for construction of building 

2. Urban open Government land 

3. Land whose location is more important, and not the agriculture related importance 

4. That Government land, which is not included in the holding of any village 


Correct Answer :-  Land whose location is more important, and not the agriculture related importance 


10) In Kharif 2017, Girdavari was carried out using the Fasal Girdavari App in villages in Madhya Pradesh. 


1. 12348

2, 34831

3. 54724

4. 11622


Correct Answer :-  54724


11) The District Collector has powers to create the post of Recovery Servitors (Process Servers) for six months every year under the 


1. Revenue Book of Circulars 

2. Book of Financial Powers 

3, Public Service Guarantee Act 2010 

4, Special order of the Principal Revenue Commissioner 


Correct Answer :  Book of Financial Powers


12) Who among the following has the rights to appoint Revenue Inspector? 


1. Collector 

2. State Government 

3. Commissioner, Land Records 

4, Deputy-Commissioner, Land Records 


Correct Answer :-  Collector 


13. who among the following appoints the additional commissionerom


1. Collector 

2. State Government 

3. Board of Revenue 

4, Commissioner 


Correct Answer :-  State Government 


14) How many Heads of Department are functioning under the Revenue Department of Madhya Pradesh? 


1.6

2.5

3.7

4.4


Correct Answer :-


15) As on 1 January 2018, what is the total number of sanctioned posts of Superintendent, Land Records at State Level? 


1. 132

2. 143

3. 54

4. 135


Correct Answer :-  143


16) In Revenue Department of the Govt. of Madhya Pradesh, who among the following is the Head of the Department for agricultural statistics? 


1. Director, Economics and Statistics 

2. Relief Commissioner 

3. Principal Revenue Commissioner 

4. Commissioner of Land Records & Settlements 


Correct Answer :-  Commissioner of Land Records & Settlements 


17) Which of the following do not fall under the meaning of ‘Revenue Officer’? 


1. President, Board of Revenue 

2. Superintendent of land records 

3. Commissioner

4. Collector 


Correct Answer :-  President, Board of Revenue 


18) Who among the following is not a Revenue Officer? 


1. Revenue Inspector 

2. Naib Tahsildar 

3, Settlement Officer 

4, Asst. Superintendent of Land Records 


Correct Answer :-  Revenue Inspector 


19) Under which Section of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, appointment of the Kotwars and their duties are prescribed? /


1. Section 225 

2, Section 232 

3, Section 230 

4. Section 222 


Correct Answer :-  Section 230 


20) Which of the following divisions of Madhya Pradesh at present has the largest number of districts? 


1. Ujjain 

2. Gwalior 

3. Sagar 

4, Jabalpur 


Correct Answer :-  Jabalpur 


Topic:- Knowledge of Laws/Rules


1) By which of the following dates should the Patwari submit the Jamabandi Goshwara to the Revenue Inspector? 


1. 01 October 

2. 30 June 

3.15 June 

4.31 March 


Correct Answer :-  15 June 


2) Which of the following is not included in the duties of Revenue Inspector? 


1. Monthly reporting about the performance of Village Kotwar 

2. Repairs of Towers and Boundary signs

3. Training of Patwaris 

4. Performing crop cutting experiment 


Correct Answer :-  Monthly reporting about the performance of Village Kotwar


3) As per Revenue Book Circular (RBC)-IV-I, Nazul land may be alloted for housing purposes to Madhya Pradesh Housing Board (MPHB) and Cooperative Housing Society (Society) on payment of _ percent premium of the market value of land and an annual ground rent at _ percent of premium. 


1. 25 per cent; two per cent 

2. 60 per cent; five per cent 

3. 20 per cent; two per cent 

4. 50 per cent; five per cent 


Correct Answer :-  60 per cent; five per cent 


4) As per Para 12 (5) of RBC-I-1, in the beginning of every revenue year, Tahsildar, will register revenue cases against the defaulters for a period of more than year/s and submit its report to Collector latest by first day of every year. 


1. Two; April 

2. Two: December 

3. One; October 

4. One; November


Correct Answer :-  One: November 


5) Land revenue of half acre land increased by alluvion is decided by which of the following method? 


1. Amount equivalent to twice the revenue of the survey number adjoining to the alluvion land added 

2. Land revenue shall not be payable 

3. According to the prevailing land revenue 

4. Equivalent to the Market value of the land 


Correct Answer :-  Land revenue shall not be payable 


6) For which of the following period can the execution of an order be stopped, at a time, by issuing

a stay order? 


1. 60 days 

2. 45 days 

3. 90 days 

4, 15 days 


Correct Answer :-  90 days 


7) Within which of the following periods, can a claim be made on the land acquired by the Tehsildar in case of the death of Bhumiswami without having any successor? 


1. 3 years 

2.2 years 

3. 5 years 

4. 1 year


Correct Answer :-  3 years 


8) Till which period should the daily diary of patwari be kept safely after it is completely filled?


1. Till 02 years 

2. Till 04 years 

3. Till O1 year 

4. Permanently


Correct Answer :-  Till 04 years 


9) At which of the following rates is land revenue payable in respect to large Abadi plots? 


1. In half the proportion of land revenue assessed on agricultural land.

2. In double the proportion of land revenue assessed on agricultural land. 

3. At the proportion of land revenue assessed on agricultural land. 

4, Not payable. 


Correct Answer :-  Not payable. 


10) Among the following, what is the annual fee fixed for the license given for the purposes of making balcony, stairs on the open Nazul land? 


1. equal to the total cost of land 

2. 1/8th of the total cost of land 

3, 1/16th of the total cost of land 

4. 1\4th of the total cost of land


Correct Answer :-  1/16th of the total cost of land 


11) Which section has the provision of regularizing the encroachments upon State Government’s land? 


1. In Section-248 

2. In Section-162 

3, In Section-158 

4. In Section-59 


Correct Answer :-  In Section-162 


12) Which of the following is the maximum period of stay which could be granted under section-52 of M.P. Land revenue code? 


1. Maximum for 3 months 

2. Till the receipt of stay order from the higher court

3. Till the resolution of the case 

4, Till the date of the next hearing 


Correct Answer :-  Maximum for 3 months 


13) Which of the following is required before sale of land allotted by State Government in bhumiswami rights? 


1. Amount equivalent to market value of the land should be deposited in the Government Treasury 

2. It is mandatory to get permission of a Collector 

3. It is mandatory to give intimation to the State Government 

4. Diversion of land is mandatory 


Correct Answer :-  It is mandatory to get permission of a Collector 


14) Which of the following is not entered in the Gram notebook? 


1. Related to animals 

2. Related to crimes 

3. Related to lands encroached upon

4. Related to population


Correct Answer :-  Related to lands encroached upon


15) Which of the following is not included in the conditions of tree-cutting according to Forest Produce Rules framed under Section — 240 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code? 


1. Tree which is less than of 9 inch in circumference at the height of the chest. 

2. Roots of the tress shall not be harmed. 

3. Bamboo group having less than 10 nodes shall not be cut.

4. None of the bamboo trees of less than 3 years shall be cut. 


Correct Answer :-  None of the bamboo trees of less than 3 years shall be cut. 


16) Land revenue of agricultural land cannot be reduced for which of the following reasons?


1. Land becoming inappropriate for farming due to flood. 

2. Due to closure of irrigated land’s source of irrigation. 

3. Area of the khata is minimized. 

4, Because farmer stops the agricultural operations. 



Correct Answer :-  Because farmer stops the agricultural operations. 


17) What is the time limit prescribed in the RBC or MPLRC for execution and registration of lease deed after the allotment of the Nazul land? 


1. no time limit has been prescribed 

2. 2 years 

3. 1 year

4. 90 days 


Correct Answer :-  no time limit has been prescribed 


18) What is the objective of the consolidation proceedings? 


1. Redistribution of the agricultural land in such way that the holdings would become greater and eligible for land revenue. 

2. Redistribution of the agricultural land in such way that the adjacent plots could be easily allotted to the farmers. 

3. Redistribution of the agricultural land in such way that it could be divided easily. 

4. Provision for the farmers to reach their lands easily. 


Correct Answer :-  Redistribution of the agricultural land in such way that the adjacent plots could be easily allotted to the farmers. 


19) What is the rate for re-assessing the land revenue when agricultural land is diverted for mining purpose specified in clause (f) of sub-section (1) of Section 59 of M.P. Land Revenue Code? 


1. 0.5% of the Market Value of agricultural land 

2. 0.2% of the Market Value of agricultural land 

3. 0.4% of the Market Value of agricultural land 

4, 0.1% of the Market Value of agricultural land 


Correct Answer :-  0.2% of the Market Value of agricultural land 


20) If the applicant is not present on the day of hearing, then which of the following actions can be taken in a Revenue Case? 


1. Penalty shall be imposed.

2. Hearing shall be postponed. 

3. A notice shall be reissued to be present. 

4, Can be dismissed because of the absence. 


Correct Answer :-  Can be dismissed because of the absence. 


21) Who among the following is the controlling officer of the Principal of Patwari Training Institute? 


1. Collector 

2. Commissioner, Land Record Department 

3. Superintendent, Land Record Department

4, Deputy Commissioner, Land Records 


Correct Answer :-  Collector 


22) Who among the following is in charge of the Rain Gauge kept in Tehsils? /


1. Nayab Nazir 

2. Head Quarter Revenue Inspector 

3. Maal Jamadar 

4. Kanoongo 


Correct Answer :-  Kanoongo


23) To whom among the following can a representation be filed, against the order passed by the Commissioner in any Nazul Case? 


1. To commissioner of Land Records and Settlement 

2. To the State Government

3. Before High Court 

4. To Board of Revemue 


Correct Answer :-  To the State Government 


24) Under which of the following Sections of M.P. Land Revenue Code is there a provision of dividing urban land into plot numbers? 


1. Section — 59 

2. Section — 70 

3. Section — 93

4. Section — 96 


Correct Answer :-  Section — 93 


25) Under which of the following circumstances can proceedings be initiated under Section 248 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, if any unauthorized construction is found on Government land? 


1. If possession in the Sironj region was prior to 1st day of July, 1959. 

2. If possession in the Bhopal region was prior to the 8th day of November, 1933. 

3. If possession in the Vindhya Pradesh region was prior to the Ist day of April, 1955. 

4. If possession in the Madhya Bharat (Central India) region was prior to 15th day of August, 1950. 


Correct Answer :-  If possession in the Sironj region was prior to 1st day of July, 1959. /


26) Under which Section of the M.P. Land Revenue Code is Tahsildar empowered for hearing the appeal against mutation done by Revenue Inspector?


1. Has not been empowered 

2. Section-44 

3. Section-32 

4. Section-110 


Correct Answer :-  Has not been empowered 


27) In which of these periods, can any application be filed for cancellation of any dismiss in default order passed under section 35 of M.P. Land Revenue code? 


1. Within 30 days 

2. Within 60 days 

3. Within 15 days 

4. Within 45 days 


Correct Answer :-  Within 30 days 


28) In which of the following time limits is the Tahsildar bound to initiate proceedings under Section — 248 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code upon receipt of information of resolution duly passed by the Gram Panchayat in respect of any unauthorized possession? 


1. within 3 months 

2. within 7 days 

3. within 30 days 

4. within 15 days


Correct Answer :-  within 30 days 


29) In which of the following conditions can a encroacher of any Government land be sent to civil jail under Section — 248 of the M.P.Land Revenue Code? 


1. If encroaching continues for more than 07 days after the date of order of eviction and does not pay the imposed fine. 

2. If encroaching is continued even after 15 days of issuing eviction orders. 

3. If encroaching is continued even after 07 days of issuing eviction orders. 

4. If encroaching is continued even after 01 month of issuing eviction orders. 


Correct Answer :-  If encroaching is continued even after 07 days of issuing eviction orders. 


30) How much fine can be imposed if any person on whom a summons to attend as witness is served and he fails to comply with the summons? 


1. Fine of upto 10 thousand rupees

2. Fine of upto | thousand rupees 

3. Fine of upto 2 thousand rupees

4. Fine of upto 5 thousand rupees 


Correct Answer :-  Fine of upto 1 thousand rupees 


31) According to the Section 215 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, who among the following generally bears the expenses of the consolidation process? 


1. State Government 

2. Irrigation Co-operative Society 

3. Bhumiswami 

4. Gram Panchayat 


Correct Answer :-  Bhumiswami 


32) According to the M. P. Land Revenue Code read with RBC-IV-I, rent payable for a nazul plot in an urban area held on lease shall be deemed to be due for revision 


1. With 90 days of expiry of lease 

2. Every 5 years 

3, Every 10 years  

4, When the lease becomes due for renewal 


Correct Answer :- When the lease becomes due for renewal


33) For which of the following objectives does the revenue inspector commence his regular visit in each village from 15 October? 


1. To ensure that, Patwari is staying in his Halka. 

2. To ensure the progress in map correction and preparation of Khasra by Patwari. 

3. In order to inspect the Girdavari done by Patwari.

4. For crop cutting experiments. 


Correct Answer :-  To ensure the progress in map correction and preparation of Khasra by Patwari. 


34) For which of the following purposes is Nistar Patrak prepared, according to the Section 234 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code? 



1. Embodying a scheme of management of land for nistar (disposal). 

2. For management of entire unoccupied land.

3. For giving validity to nistari (disposal) rights on agricultural lands of the village. 

4. For maintaining records of reserved lands for nistar (disposal). 


Correct Answer :- For management of entire unoccupied land. 


35) As per Paragraph 32 (2) of RBC IV-I, levy of premium and of full premium as yearly ground rent on allotment of Government plots on temporary lease for three years for commercial purposes. 



1. 2 per cent; 0.4 per cent 

2. 60 per cent; 5 per cent 

3. 50 per cent; 5 per cent 

4. 30 per cent; 7.5 per cent 


Correct Answer :-  30 per cent; 7.5 per cent 


36) No premium shall be payable on agricultural land diverted into residential purposes for dwelling houses, in non-urban areas, if the area of diverted land is not exceeding 


1. 1000 Square meter 

2. 100 Square meter 

3. 50 Square meter 

4. 500 Square meter 


Correct Answer :-  100 Square meter 


37) By which of the following laws is the Revenue Machinery empowered to enter any land for revenue survey and inspection purposes? 


1. Under Section-28 of M.P.Land Revenue Code 

2. Under Section- 182 of the Land Revenue Code 

3. Under Land Records Manual Part — 1, Chapter 12(1) 

4, According to the Revenue Book Circular, 1(12),2 


Correct Answer :-  Under Section-28 of M.P.Land Revenue Code 


38) By which of the following dates should Annual Revenue Report reach the office of Commissioner from the Collector? 


1. By 31st October 

2. By l st November 

3. By 16th November 

4, By 15th October 


Correct Answer :-  By 16th November 


39) By which date, should the Patwari provide information regarding the anticipated annual income of Siwai income and its means? 


1. 15th June 

2. Ist June 

3. 30th June 

4. 31st July 


Correct Answer :- 30th June 


40) The proposal for fixation of assessment rate under Section 77 of M.P. Land Revenue Code is forwarded to the State Government for approval by the: 


1. Settlement Officer

2. Tahsildar 

3. Sub-Divisional Officer 

4, Collector 


Correct Answer :-  Settlement Officer 


41) Para- 28 and 35 volume IV (1) of RBC requires the maintenance of  


1. Diara Register 

2. Temporary Lease Register 

3. Demand and Recovery Statement 

4. Demand and Collection Register 


Correct Answer :-  Temporary Lease Register 


42) Under M.P. Land Revenue Code, after publication of Wajib-ul-Arz, within which period can it be challenged in a Civil Court? 


1. 6 months 

2. 3 years

3. 1 year 

4.3 months 


Correct Answer :- 1 year 


43) Para 34 of RBC-II-1 provides that the Commissioner of the division should inspect revenue court of each Tahsil once in , while the Collector should inspect each Tahsil of his district


1. 2 years; 3 months 

2, 2 years; 2 years 

3. 5 years; 6 months 

4. 3 years; year 


Correct Answer :-  3 years; year


44) According to Section 57 of M.P. Land Revenue Code any dispute pertaining to the right over any land between Government and Individual shall be decided by which Authority? 


1. State Government

2. The Civil Court 

3. Board of Revenue 

4, The Sub Divisional Officer 


Correct Answer :-  State Government 


45) The offence under section 250-B of the M.P. Land Revenue Code falls under which category : 


1. Non —cognizable and bailable offence

2. Cognizable and non-bailable offence 

3. Cognizable and bailable offence

4. Non- cognizable and non-bailable offence


Correct Answer :-  Cognizable and non-bailable offence 


46) Which of the following entries is not made in Form B-7? 


1. Name of defaulter 

2. Unpaid land revenue for current year 

3. Unpaid land revenue of previous years 

4, Paid Land Revenue 


Correct Answer :-  Unpaid land revenue of previous years 


47) Which of the following entries is made in the Column number 08 of Khasra? 


1. Double cropped area 

2. Area of the crop sown 

3. Area not sown for two to five years 

4, Area not sown in current year 


Correct Answer :-  Area not sown in current year 


48) Which of the following reports is submitted by the Patwari to the Revenue Inspector on 24th of every month? 


1. Collection of land revenue during the month and arrears of land revenue 

2. Copy of the daily dairy for appraisal of crop conditions 

3. Information of mutation registered in the month 

4. Progress of Girdavari 


Correct Answer :-  Copy of the daily dairy for appraisal of crop conditions 


49) Which of the following is not included in the check-list of Revenue Inspector for preparation of reports and returns? 


1. Monthly salary bills of Patwaris 

2. Crop forecast 

3. Requisition of Patwari forms 

4. Report regarding migration of farmers 


Correct Answer :-  Report regarding migration of farmers 


50) As per Revenue Book Circular (RBC)-IV-I, Nazul land may be alloted for religious or social purpose to any trust on payment of premium at of market value of land and ground rent at of normal rent. 


1. 75 per cent; 50 per cent 

2. 60 per cent; 5 per cent 

3. 50 per cent; 10 per cent 

4, 50 per cent; 50 per cent 


Correct Answer :-  75 percent; 50 per cent 

9 January 2026 with detailed explanation of judicial reforms, fiscal federalism, India–EU relations, defence preparedness, water security, technology self-reliance and climate resilience. Ideal for UPSC Prelims & Mains.

🇮🇳 NATIONAL AFFAIRS 1️⃣ Government Pushes Judicial Efficiency Through Technology and Structural Reforms The Government of India reviewed o...